190. Knee flexion is an important part of impact force absorption during running, and runners with peak knee flexion that is less than __________ degrees have less shock absorption. a. 5. b. 15. c. 25. d. 45. 191. The center of mass of a runner moves up and down vertically in a range of approximately: a. 1 to 2 cm. b. 2 to 4 cm. c. 6 to 10 cm. d. 10 to 20 cm. 192. Foot pronation is a __________ motion that occurs around the __________ joint. a. Biplanar; midtarsal. b. Triplanar; subtalar. c. Biplanar; subtalar. d. Triplanar, talocrural. 193. Normal heel eversion measures between __________ degrees. a. 0 and 4. b. 8 and 12. c. 16 and 20. d. 22 and 30. 194. The normal position of the feet during stance phase is: a. Toe out 5 to 10 degrees. b. Toe in 5 to 10 degrees. c. Toe out 10 to 15 degrees. d. Toe in 10 to 15 degrees. 195. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the knee window for runners? a. The knee window is defined as the space between the knees throughout the running cycle. b. Excess hip adduction and internal rotation may contribute to not having a knee window or losing the knee window during the running cycle. c. Excess knee varus may cause a runner to lose or not have a knee window. d. Excess knee varus may result in a large knee window. 196. The foot will accommodate for an increased forefoot varus through: c. Subtalar joint supination. d. Subtalar joint pronation. 197. Which of the following is true regarding external tibial torsion? a. Any external tibial torsion is considered abnormal. b. A certain degree of external tibial torsion is considered normal. c. Increased external tibial torsion leads to a toe-in position of the foot. d. A common compensation for excess external tibial torsion is increased hip abduction. 198. Normal external tibial torsion measures: a. 0 degrees. b. 0 to 5 degrees. a. Ankle plantarflexion. b. Ankle dorsiflexion.
181. During running, ground reaction forces are transferred from the foot to the flexed knee where the contracting quadriceps compresses the patella in the trochlear groove with a force that is __________ times the runner’s body weight. a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. 182. All of the following muscles attach to the iliotibial band except: 183. As the knee moves through flexion and extension range of motion, the ITB makes contact with the femur at __________ degrees. a. 10. b. 15. c. 30. d. 45. 184. What is the correlation between body mass index and the onset of stress fractures? a. Being underweight increases the risk for stress fractures. b. Being overweight increases the risk for stress fractures. c. Being overweight and being underweight both increase the risk for stress fractures. d. Weight has been shown to have no influence on the risk for developing stress fractures. 185. The most common site for stress fractures in runners is: a. Foot. b. Tibia. c. Fibula. d. Femur. 186. Patients with femoral stress fractures will complain of pain in what area? a. Groin. b. Knee. c. Buttocks. d. Distal thigh. 187. The test used to diagnose femoral shaft stress fractures is: a. The tuning fork test. b. Noble’s test. c. The painful arc test. d. The fulcrum test. 188. The angle between the bottom of the shoe and the ground at initial contact as viewed from the side is called: a. Foot strike pattern. b. Foot inclination angle. c. Base of support. d. Toe in/toe out angle. a. Tensor fascia lata. b. Gluteus medius. c. Vastus lateralis. d. Gluteus maximus. 189. When viewed from the side, the point where shoe deformation begins as the foot comes in contact with the ground is called: a. Vertical displacement. b. Center of mass. c. Loading response. d. Base of support.
c. 10 to 15 degrees. d. 20 to 30 degrees.
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