75. On OASIS, an example of an Outcome Measure that determines change from start of care to discharge is: a. Fall risk. b. Heart rate. c. Surgical wound healing. d. Patient age. 76. Currently, the Medicare reimbursement system pays agencies according to: a. Agencies bill per visit. b. A patient’s OASIS data on all items collected at admission and discharge. c. A value-based payment system using a patient’s OASIS data collected at admission. d. The PDGM system consisting of several categories. 77. Which patient must be assessed with an OASIS? a. A 23-year-old woman with Medicaid who is receiving care for a post-appendectomy wound infection. b. A 43-year-old woman with Medicaid who is receiving care for a post-cesarean wound infection. c. A 63-year-old woman with Blue Cross/Blue Shield, post-valve replacement surgery, needing nursing and rehabilitation therapy services. d. An 83-year-old woman with Medicare, post-stroke, who needs home health aide services to assist with activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). 78. Which patient requires a Transfer OASIS? a. Mr. Brown, who was in the hospital for 2 days for diagnostic tests. b. Mr. White, who was in the hospital for 12 hours for a surgical procedure. c. Mr. Black, who spent 28 hours in the emergency department before being discharged. d. Mr. Green, who was admitted to a skilled nursing facility for 36 hours for medication adjustment. 79. Which OASIS should be filled out if a patient dies in the ambulance on the way to the emergency department? a. Transfer. b. Discharge. c. Death At Home. d. Other Follow-Up. 80. Which statement about who can perform an OASIS is true? a. Registered nurses are the only home health professionals who are permitted to perform the Start of Care OASIS. b. Physical therapists and speech-language pathologists can perform a Start of Care OASIS for “therapy only” cases. c. Licensed practical nurses and rehabilitation assistants can perform the Transfer and Discharge OASIS assessments only. d. With special training and when supervised by professionals, licensed practical nurses and rehabilitation therapy assistants can perform OASIS assessments. 81. Which of the following statements is true regarding the SOC OASIS? a. The OASIS must be entirely completed during the initial visit. b. The therapy evaluations must be performed within 5 days of the SOC visit. c. OASIS data may be collected over the course of several visits, but must be completed within 5 days of SOC. d. Assessing physical and functional status on the last day of the 5-day window captures the patient at his or her most acute stage.
82. Which of the following is the most complete list of acceptable sources of information the therapist should consult when collecting OASIS data? a. Patient, physicians, and information from the referring facility. b. Patient and caregivers. c. Patient, and physicians. d. Patients, caregivers, physicians, and information from the referring facility. 83. Within the OASIS-D Guidance Manual , for each M item, the Item Intent serves to explain: a. How to answer the item for the patient’s condition during the visit. b. The rationale for collecting the item. c. The time points for when to complete the item. d. How to decide whether the item should be answered. 84. The OASIS-D Guidance Manual should be studied carefully by home care therapists in order to: a. Determine shortcuts in achieving competency in OASIS completion. b. Decrease the time required to complete the instrument. c. Memorize the 90 items on the OASIS-D. d. Gain knowledge of each item and response nuances and develop mastery of OASIS. 85. The Patient History and Diagnoses section of OASIS contains items that include information on: a. Patient demographics. b. Recent hospitalizations and medical conditions. c. Who lives with and assists the patient. d. The reason the OASIS assessment is being performed. 86. When assessing the frequency of pain interfering with a patient’s ability to move around (M1242), the therapist should consider: a. Only the patient’s report using the standardized and validated pain assessment tool. b. Only the patient’s report about how frequently pain interferes with ADLs and IADLs. c. Only the therapist’s observation of when pain interferes with the patient’s ability to perform ADLs and IADLs. d. Multiple activities, including sleeping and recreational activities the patient refrains from doing because of pain. 87. Most items in the Integumentary Status section of OASIS pertain to: a. Venous stasis ulcers. b. Surgical wounds. c. Pressure ulcers. d. Rashes. 88. Which depression screening tool is embedded in OASIS? a. PHQ-2. b. PHQ-9. c. Geriatric Depression Scale. d. Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression. 89. The OASIS items requiring therapist assessment that are critical to reimbursement are: a. Medications. b. ADL items. c. Integumentary Status. d. Therapy Need. 90. Which of the following is true regarding therapists and medication reconciliation? a. All states allow therapists to perform a drug regimen review. b. Therapists must know their state’s regulations regarding drug regimen review. c. Speech-language pathologists are the only therapists allowed to perform a drug regimen review. d. Therapists can never perform a drug regimen review and must always consult with a qualified nurse. Course Code : PTCA03HH
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Book Code: PTCA2622B
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